HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client is admitted with a possible myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a myocardial infarction?
- A. Serum creatine kinase (CK)
- B. Serum troponin
- C. Serum myoglobin
- D. C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Serum troponin is the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within 3-4 hours after myocardial damage, peak at 10-24 hours, and remain elevated for up to 10-14 days. Creatine kinase (CK) and myoglobin can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin is more specific to cardiac muscle damage. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific for myocardial infarction.
2. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Auscultate for renal bruits
- B. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
- C. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones
- D. Begin to strain the client's urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.
3. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
- A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
- B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
- C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
- D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Elevated liver enzymes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with right-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) and peripheral edema (Choice B) are common findings in right-sided heart failure but do not indicate acute deterioration requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice D) may be seen in chronic heart failure but do not warrant immediate action compared to the urgent need to address pulmonary congestion indicated by crackles in the lungs.
5. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
- B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
- C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
- D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.
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