Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.

2. While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother what she usually uses on the child's lips and nose.
• B. Apply a petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to the child's nose and lips.
• C. Use a topical lidocaine (Zylocaine viscous) analgesic for cracked lips.
• D. Use a water-soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A water-soluble lubricant is safe to use in conjunction with oxygen therapy, unlike petroleum jelly which is flammable.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While monitoring electrolyte levels like serum potassium and sodium is important in overall client care, they are not specific to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is a component of INR and helps in monitoring warfarin therapy, but INR gives a standardized result that is independent of the laboratory method used, making it the preferred choice for monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.

Similar Questions