a client with a history of chronic kidney disease ckd is receiving erythropoietin therapy which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

3. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with DKA as it may indicate worsening hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. While elevated glucose and low bicarbonate are characteristic of DKA, hyperkalemia poses a higher immediate risk. Serum sodium within the normal range is not typically a primary concern in DKA.

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