HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with liver cirrhosis and severe ascites has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L and is receiving 3% saline IV. Which assessment finding indicates that the nurse should notify the healthcare provider?
- A. The client's serum sodium level is now 130 mEq/L
- B. The client reports a headache and has a BP of 140/90
- C. The client reports shortness of breath and has an O2 saturation of 92%
- D. The client has crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate indicates fluid overload, which can be exacerbated by hypertonic saline. This condition can worsen the client's respiratory status and lead to further complications. The other options do not directly relate to the fluid overload caused by the hypertonic saline. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L is within a normal range for treatment. A headache and a blood pressure of 140/90 are not specific indicators of worsening condition related to hypertonic saline. Shortness of breath and an O2 saturation of 92% could be related to other factors in a client with liver cirrhosis and ascites.
2. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
- B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
- C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
- D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
- D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.
4. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter. He is unresponsive, with minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Offer to notify the client's minister of his condition.
- B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
- C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
- D. Explore the possibility of organ donation with the family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to determine if the client has an executed living will. A living will provides guidance on the client's preferences for medical care in situations where they cannot communicate. This information is crucial in guiding the care team on how to proceed with treatment. Options A, C, and D, though important in certain circumstances, are not the highest priority in this situation where immediate decisions regarding the client's care need to be made.
5. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
- B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
- C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
- D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.
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