HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client with severe constipation. Which position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
- B. Left lateral with the right leg flexed
- C. Sims’ position with the right leg flexed
- D. Prone position with the head turned to the side
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sims’ position with the right leg flexed is the most appropriate position for administering an enema to a client with severe constipation. This position helps in promoting the flow of the enema solution into the rectum and facilitates the evacuation of stool. Supine position with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema as it does not facilitate the flow of the solution. Left lateral position with the right leg flexed (Choice B) is not the best choice for administering an enema. Prone position with the head turned to the side (Choice D) is also not suitable for administering an enema as it does not assist in the proper administration and retention of the solution.
2. The nurse enters a client's room to administer scheduled daily medications and observes the client leaning forward and using pursed lip breathing. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement first?
- A. Evaluate the oxygen saturation.
- B. Administer a bronchodilator.
- C. Assist the client to sit upright.
- D. Encourage slow, deep breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first evaluate the oxygen saturation. This action is crucial as it provides immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Assessing the oxygen saturation can help determine the adequacy of oxygenation and guide further interventions. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it should not be the first action without knowing the oxygen saturation level. While assisting the client to sit upright (Choice C) is generally beneficial for respiratory function, in this case, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (Choice D) can be helpful, but it is secondary to evaluating the oxygen saturation in this situation.
3. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
- A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
- B. Report increased bruising or bleeding
- C. Stop medication if a cough develops
- D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which can lead to an increased risk of bruising and bleeding. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, stopping medication if a cough develops, and limiting intake of leafy green vegetables are not directly related to the common side effects or actions of ACE inhibitors.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Subcutaneous emphysema
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the assessment finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can compromise respiratory function and lead to serious complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% may be concerning but does not require immediate intervention as it is still within an acceptable range. Crepitus around the insertion site is common after chest tube placement and may not always indicate a problem. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention in this context.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access