HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
- B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.
2. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
- B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
- C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
- D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.
3. The nurse is assessing a primigravida at 39-weeks gestation during a weekly prenatal visit. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 200 beats/minute.
- B. Mild ankle edema.
- C. Complaints of back pain.
- D. Decreased fetal movements.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 200 beats per minute is significantly elevated and requires immediate medical attention. This finding could indicate fetal distress, tachycardia, or other serious issues that need prompt evaluation. Mild ankle edema, complaints of back pain, and decreased fetal movements are common in pregnancy but are not as urgent or concerning as a high fetal heart rate.
4. The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube (NGT) when the client begins to vomit. How should the nurse manage this situation?
- A. Direct the UAP to measure the emesis while the nurse irrigates the NGT
- B. Stop the NGT feed and notify the healthcare provider
- C. Increase the NGT suction pressure
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During vomiting in a client with an NGT, it is essential for the nurse to direct the UAP to measure the emesis to monitor the output. This helps in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment. Meanwhile, irrigating the NGT can be beneficial to relieve any obstruction that might be contributing to the vomiting. Stopping the NGT feed and notifying the healthcare provider (choice B) is important but not the immediate action needed. Increasing the NGT suction pressure (choice C) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. Elevating the head of the bed (choice D) is a general intervention to prevent aspiration but may not address the immediate issue of managing the vomiting episode and potential tube obstruction.
5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.
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