Nursing Elites

1. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
• B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

2. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed because of early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
• B. Provide the client with a warm blanket to reduce stiffness.
• C. Delay the procedure until the client is less stiff.
• D. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help reduce morning stiffness, making the procedure more comfortable for the client. This intervention promotes comfort and mobility, addressing the immediate issue of stiffness. Providing a warm blanket (choice B) may offer some comfort but will not address the stiffness as effectively as a warm shower. Delaying the procedure (choice C) may inconvenience the client and not address the underlying stiffness issue. Encouraging range-of-motion exercises (choice D) is important for long-term management but may not provide immediate relief from the stiffness that is hindering the procedure.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Excessive thirst
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Poor skin turgor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypernatremia. In a client with Diabetes Insipidus, hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level in the blood, can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, seizures, or coma. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent these serious complications. Excessive thirst (choice B) is a common symptom of Diabetes Insipidus but does not require immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice C) and poor skin turgor (choice D) are important assessments but are not as critical as hypernatremia in this context.

5. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

• A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Report increased bruising or bleeding.
• C. Stop medication if a cough develops.
• D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which lowers platelet count and increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because while ACE inhibitors may cause potassium levels to increase, the instruction should not be to increase intake of potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation, and stopping the medication abruptly is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to limit intake of leafy green vegetables specifically with ACE inhibitors; however, consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is recommended to maintain a stable INR for clients taking anticoagulants.

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