HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?
- A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
- B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
- C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.
2. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?
- A. Initiation of the impulses from a location outside the SA node
- B. Inability of the SA node to initiate an impulse at the normal rate
- C. Increased conduction time from the SA node to the AV junction
- D. Interference with the conduction through one or both ventricles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- D. Serum pH of 7.30
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as it indicates severe dehydration and hypertonicity. This high serum osmolarity level can lead to neurological complications and requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. Serum glucose levels, blood pressure, and serum pH are important parameters to monitor in HHS, but a significantly elevated serum osmolarity poses a higher risk of complications and warrants urgent attention. High serum glucose levels, like 500 mg/dL, are expected in HHS but do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is within normal limits and may not be directly related to the acute complications of HHS. A serum pH of 7.30 suggests acidosis, which is important to address but may not be as immediately concerning as severe dehydration indicated by high serum osmolarity.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Ensure the catheter is below the level of the bladder at all times.
- B. Change the catheter bag every 48 hours.
- C. Cleanse the perineal area daily.
- D. Perform catheter care daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the catheter is always below the level of the bladder. Placing the catheter tubing above the level of the bladder can lead to backflow of urine, causing urinary tract infections. Changing the catheter bag every 48 hours is important but not as crucial as maintaining proper catheter positioning. Cleaning the perineal area daily and performing catheter care are essential tasks but do not directly address the prevention of complications associated with catheter placement.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion in a client with left-sided heart failure and require immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potentially respiratory distress. Shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema are common manifestations of heart failure but do not directly indicate acute respiratory compromise like crackles in the lungs do.
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