a client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm and intravenous iv antibiotic therapy is prescribed which action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.

2. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

4. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L should be closely monitored in a client with chronic heart failure as it may indicate hyperkalemia, requiring intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is important to monitor for kidney function but is not the priority in this case. Serum sodium (Choice B) and blood glucose (Choice D) levels are not typically the primary focus when assessing a client with heart failure presenting with respiratory symptoms and crackles in the lungs.

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