a female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately after how many ml of fluid intake shoul
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately after. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. One liter equals 1000 ml. As the client vomited immediately after drinking, she would have expelled approximately 240 ml (1 cup). Subtracting this from the initial intake of 1000 ml gives us 760 ml as the remaining fluid intake that should be documented. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation of subtracting the amount vomited from the initial intake.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are most concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of hepatotoxicity or liver damage, which could be a result of furosemide (Lasix) use. Monitoring liver function is crucial in patients taking furosemide due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg are within normal ranges for a client with chronic heart failure. An elevated blood glucose level may be expected due to the effects of furosemide but is not as immediately concerning as elevated liver enzymes.

3. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which can lead to an increased risk of bruising and bleeding. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, stopping medication if a cough develops, and limiting intake of leafy green vegetables are not directly related to the common side effects or actions of ACE inhibitors.

4. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

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