HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L, and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Infuse sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline)
- B. Prepare an emergency dose of glucagon
- C. Determine the last time the client ate
- D. Check urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In DKA, restoring fluid balance with sodium chloride is a priority to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances present in this condition. Choice B, preparing an emergency dose of glucagon, is incorrect because DKA is characterized by insulin deficiency, not glucagon deficiency. Choice C, determining the last time the client ate, is not the immediate priority in managing DKA. Choice D, checking urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick, may help confirm the diagnosis of DKA but is not the most critical intervention at this time.
2. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
- B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
- C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
- D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.
4. The nurse is caring for a client following a myelogram. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Complaint of headaches and stiff neck.
- B. Complaint of dizziness and nausea.
- C. Increased pain at the puncture site.
- D. Mild redness around the puncture site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complaint of headaches and stiff neck. Headaches and stiff neck following a myelogram may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak or other complications that require prompt medical attention. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may warrant monitoring and intervention, they are not as indicative of a potentially serious complication as the symptoms described in choice A.
5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- B. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
- C. Fever of 100.4°F
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in this population. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of sepsis, which requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate threat to the client's well-being in the context of preparing for hemodialysis.
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