HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
2. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bruises on arms and legs
- B. Round and tight abdomen
- C. Pitting edema in lower legs
- D. Capillary refill of 8 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the client's capillary refill of 8 seconds is the assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. A capillary refill greater than 3 to 5 seconds indicates poor perfusion, which could be a sign of inadequate circulation and oxygenation. Checking capillary refill is a quick and useful way to assess peripheral perfusion. Bruises on arms and legs may indicate a bleeding disorder but are not as urgent as addressing poor perfusion. A round and tight abdomen could suggest ascites, which is already known in this case. Pitting edema in lower legs is a common finding in malnutrition and ascites but does not require immediate intervention as poor capillary refill does.
3. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?
- A. Antihypertensives
- B. Anti-infectives
- C. Antihistamines
- D. Anticholesteremics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before a renal biopsy, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), monitoring creatinine levels is crucial as elevated levels may indicate worsening kidney function, which could impact the safety and outcome of the biopsy. Hemoglobin (choice C) is important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not directly related to the kidney biopsy procedure. Serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD but is not specifically crucial before a renal biopsy. White blood cell count (choice D) is more relevant for assessing infection or inflammation, which is not the primary concern before a renal biopsy.
5. A male client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an antipsychotic medication, for the management of schizophrenia. Which client history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the first dose of this medication?
- A. History of depression
- B. History of cardiac arrhythmia
- C. History of seizures
- D. History of diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cardiac arrhythmia. Clozapine can lead to severe cardiovascular problems, making it crucial to report any history of cardiac arrhythmia to the healthcare provider before administering the medication. Choices A, C, and D are less concerning in this context as they are not directly associated with potential serious complications related to clozapine use.
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