Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high in a client with CKD, and it should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not the most critical values to report before hemodialysis. While a serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent as a level of 6.0 mEq/L in this context. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and blood glucose of 200 mg/dl are important parameters to monitor but are not as immediately concerning before hemodialysis compared to a high potassium level.

2. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Lying flat with legs elevated
• C. Lying on the side with the head slightly raised
• D. Sitting up and tilting the head back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) should be placed in a sitting position, leaning forward, to prevent blood from flowing down the throat. This position helps to control the bleeding and prevents the child from swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because elevating the legs is not recommended for nosebleeds. Choice C is incorrect because lying on the side with the head slightly raised is not the optimal position for managing a nosebleed. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the head back can lead to blood flowing down the throat and potentially cause aspiration.

3. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Send stool specimen to the lab
• B. Measure abdominal girth
• C. Encourage increased fiber in the diet
• D. Monitor mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement after a client with hepatic encephalopathy has loose stools following lactulose administration is to monitor the client's mental status. Lactulose is given to lower serum ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, and loose stools can be an expected side effect of its use. Monitoring mental status is crucial because changes in mental status, such as confusion or altered level of consciousness, are key indicators of hepatic encephalopathy worsening. Sending a stool specimen to the lab would not be the priority in this situation as loose stools are a known effect of lactulose. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for conditions like ascites, not loose stools. Encouraging increased fiber in the diet may be beneficial for constipation but is not the immediate action needed when loose stools occur after lactulose administration.

4. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
• B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

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