a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. The charge nurse observes a new nurse preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter. The new nurse has gathered supplies, including intravenous catheters, an intravenous insertion kit, and a 4x4 sterile gauze dressing to cover and secure the insertion site. What action should the charge nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site. Transparent dressings allow for continuous observation of the IV site, reducing the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because the charge nurse should intervene to ensure the new nurse follows best practices. Choice C is incorrect as the charge nurse should not just assist but provide guidance on the correct procedure. Choice D is incorrect because the size of the dressing is not the issue; it's the type of dressing that allows for better observation.

3. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

4. While auscultating a client's heart sounds, which description should the nurse use to document a swishing sound related to blood turbulence or valvular defect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Murmur.' A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound associated with blood turbulence caused by the heart or a valvular defect. Choices 'A: S1 S2' and 'B: S1 S2 S3' refer to normal heart sounds, specifically the closure of heart valves. 'D: Pericardial friction rub' is a dry, rubbing or grating sound caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac and is not associated with blood flow or valvular issues.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with cirrhosis presenting with jaundice and ascites, yellowing of the skin (icterus) is the most concerning assessment finding. This indicates significant liver dysfunction and a high level of bilirubin in the blood. Yellowing of the skin suggests a severe impairment of the liver's ability to process bilirubin, which can lead to serious complications. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as skin yellowing. Confusion and altered mental status are also critical findings in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but skin yellowing is more closely associated with the severity of liver dysfunction in this scenario.

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