a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.

3. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.

4. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are critical in the treatment of DKA. While administering intravenous fluids is essential to manage dehydration, insulin takes precedence in treating the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function but is not the primary intervention in managing DKA. Checking the client's blood glucose level is necessary, but administering insulin to reduce high blood glucose levels is the key priority in treating DKA.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.

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