Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client receiving furosemide. Furosemide can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous, especially in patients with heart failure. Hypokalemia can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, weakness, and other complications. Therefore, prompt intervention is necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Choice B (Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L) is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's safety. Choice D (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl) may suggest hyperglycemia, which is important but not as urgent as addressing hypokalemia in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
• C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer intravenous insulin and glucose first. This intervention helps drive potassium back into the cells, lowering serum levels effectively. Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize cardiac membranes in severe hyperkalemia but does not address the underlying cause. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is used in metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Administering a loop diuretic (choice D) can help eliminate potassium but is not the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia in CKD.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Low urine output
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.

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