HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Attempt to distract the client with general conversation
- B. Administer a pain medication
- C. Continue with the procedure while reassuring the client
- D. Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should attempt to distract the client with general conversation. Distracting the client can help reduce anxiety and make the procedure less stressful. Administering pain medication (choice B) is not appropriate as the client's discomfort is related to anxiety, not physical pain. Continuing with the procedure while reassuring the client (choice C) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Stopping the procedure and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this point since the client's anxiety can be managed by attempting to distract him.
2. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client receiving furosemide. Furosemide can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous, especially in patients with heart failure. Hypokalemia can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, weakness, and other complications. Therefore, prompt intervention is necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Choice B (Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L) is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's safety. Choice D (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl) may suggest hyperglycemia, which is important but not as urgent as addressing hypokalemia in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.
3. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?
- A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
- B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
- C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
- D. In need of immediate medical intervention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.
4. An elderly male client is admitted to the urology unit with acute renal failure due to a postrenal obstruction. Which question best assists the nurse in obtaining relevant historical data?
- A. Have you had any difficulty starting your urinary stream?
- B. Do you have a history of kidney stones?
- C. How much fluid do you drink daily?
- D. Have you had any previous urinary tract infections?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Have you had any difficulty starting your urinary stream?' This question is the most relevant as difficulty starting urination can indicate an obstruction, which aligns with the client's current condition of postrenal obstruction causing acute renal failure. Choice B is incorrect as a history of kidney stones may not be directly related to the current obstruction. Choice C, asking about daily fluid intake, is not specific to the current issue of postrenal obstruction. Choice D inquires about previous urinary tract infections, which are not directly related to the current acute renal failure caused by postrenal obstruction.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, the priority intervention should be to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. This is crucial to improve oxygenation, especially in a client with compromised respiratory function. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important steps in the treatment of pneumonia but come after ensuring adequate oxygen supply.
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