Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
• B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
• C. Insert a nasogastric tube
• D. Prepare the client for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased fatigue
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated blood pressure. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure requires immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it may indicate worsening hypertension, which can lead to further complications. Increased fatigue (choice B) is common in CKD but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Headache (choice C) can be a symptom to monitor but does not pose an immediate threat like elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is actually a desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention.

4. Before a dressing change to his legs, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the patient to stay at the bedside
• B. Use distraction techniques to reduce pain
• C. Maintain strict aseptic technique
• D. Place a drape over the burn area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining strict aseptic technique is crucial before a dressing change for burn patients to prevent infection. Encouraging the patient to stay at the bedside, using distraction techniques, or placing a drape over the burn area are not as critical as ensuring asepsis in this situation.

5. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Muscle cramping
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.

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