a male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics which interventi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the most critical finding requiring immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 94% is slightly low but may not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be a normal finding post-procedure. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube output and does not indicate an immediate concern.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of hypertension who is currently taking a diuretic. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can result from diuretic use and can lead to serious complications such as irregular heart rhythms. Monitoring and correcting potassium levels are crucial in preventing adverse cardiac events. The other options, though important, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the low potassium level.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.

5. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Toasted wheat bread and jelly. Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse should instruct the client to avoid them. Toast, which contains no dairy products, may help decrease gastrointestinal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C contain dairy products, which should be avoided when taking tetracycline.

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