Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

• A. urinalysis
• B. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
• C. chemistry of electrolytes
• D. creatinine clearance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

2. A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "You can receive a sedative to help you relax during the test."?
• B. "There is absolutely nothing to worry about."?
• C. "There is no discomfort with this test, so don't be anxious."?
• D. "The test won't last long, so you can handle it."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.

3. A client with a spinal cord injury is preparing to return home from the rehabilitation unit. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates a need for further teaching regarding autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. "I should raise him to a sitting position."?
• B. "I should check for a fecal impaction."?
• C. "I should look for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing."?
• D. "I should observe whether symptoms worsen."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the client develops signs or symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, they need to be addressed immediately. If the family member is not able to relieve them, a healthcare provider needs to be notified immediately. The statement 'I should observe whether symptoms worsen' indicates a passive approach and does not address the urgency of the situation. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they involve active measures to address autonomic dysreflexia, such as raising the client to a sitting position, checking for a fecal impaction, and looking for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing.

4. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

5. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

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