Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

• A. urinalysis
• B. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
• C. chemistry of electrolytes
• D. creatinine clearance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

2. While taking care of a client, the nurse thinks that physical therapy in the hospital might be beneficial to their condition. The following is the ideal referral process EXCEPT?

• A. Transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment after receiving an official referral.
• B. Provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record after the referral.
• C. Contact the client's primary care provider to suggest a physical therapy referral.
• D. Request the client to self-refer to the physical therapist.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ideal referral process for a client to receive physical therapy in the hospital starts with the nurse contacting the client's primary care provider to discuss and suggest a physical therapy referral. The primary care provider should provide an official referral, which is crucial for initiating the treatment process. After obtaining the official referral, the nurse should provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record. This step is essential for the therapist to assess the client's condition and customize the treatment plan accordingly. Once the physical therapist is informed and prepared, the nurse can then transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first contact the primary care provider (Choice C), then provide the medical record (Choice B), and finally transport the client for treatment (Choice A). Choice D, suggesting the client self-refer to the physical therapist, is incorrect as the referral process should involve healthcare professionals to ensure proper assessment and treatment planning.

3. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

4. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

5. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

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