Nursing Elites

1. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?

• A. grief work facilitation
• B. vital signs monitoring
• C. medication administration: skin
• D. anxiety reduction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn. Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature. Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity. Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'

2. Nurse Ann tells nurse Christine that one of her client's status is declining but that she will do her best to juggle her other two clients. Which action is most appropriate?

• A. Nurse Christine should offer to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients.
• B. Nurse Christine should inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed.
• C. Nurse Christine should ask other nurses who might be able to help Nurse Ann.
• D. Nurse Ann should try not to burden other nurses and continue caring for her assigned clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, when Nurse Ann informs Nurse Christine that a client's status is declining and she needs to attend to them, the most appropriate action for Nurse Christine is to inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed. By informing the supervisor, necessary adjustments can be made to ensure proper care for all clients. Offering to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a declining client and could lead to a delay in care. Asking other nurses for help (choice C) might not be the most efficient solution, as the supervisor is responsible for reassigning tasks. Nurse Ann continuing to care for all her assigned clients (choice D) may compromise the quality of care provided to the declining client and may spread her too thin, impacting all clients negatively.

3. Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?

• A. exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night starting at 9:30 p.m.
• B. taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea
• C. watching TV nightly until midnight
• D. getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk are appropriate measures to promote sleep as they can help relax the body and induce sleepiness. Exercising vigorously, as suggested in choice A, can be counterproductive as it stimulates the body rather than relaxing it, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice B, taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, may also increase alertness due to the temperature changes and the caffeine in tea, which can interfere with falling asleep. Watching TV until midnight, as in choice C, exposes the individual to blue light and mental stimulation, making it harder to fall asleep. Therefore, choice D is the best option to promote sleep in this scenario.

4. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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