Nursing Elites

1. What is involved in client education by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client everything about their disease, what will happen in the course of the disease, and the outcome.
• B. Giving information to the client that is accurate and understandable.
• C. Informing the client that the pain they experience might not be real.
• D. Administering medication to the client when they experience pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client education by the nurse involves providing accurate and understandable information to the client. It is essential to offer relevant details without overwhelming them, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because providing excessive details can confuse the client rather than empower them with necessary knowledge. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the role of the nurse to question the reality of a client's pain; instead, they should address and manage the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as client education focuses on providing information and empowering clients with knowledge, not just administering medication.

2. When a physician removes a chest tube, which type of dressing is recommended to be placed over the site?

• A. transparent dressing
• B. colloidal dressing
• C. petrolatum gauze
• D. nonadherent dressing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petrolatum gauze is recommended to be placed over the site when a physician removes a chest tube because it forms an airtight seal, helping prevent air from entering the pleural space. This airtight seal is crucial to avoid complications such as a pneumothorax. Transparent dressing is not ideal for this purpose as it may not provide a sufficient seal due to its design. Colloidal dressing and nonadherent dressing are also not suitable for chest tube removal sites as they do not offer the same level of protection against air leakage and may not provide the necessary sealing properties.

3. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

4. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?

• A. "Make it a stat delivery."?
• B. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."?
• C. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about urinary sepsis."?
• D. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

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