which of the following medications should be held 2448 hours prior to an electroencephalogram eeg
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

2. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

3. A case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure might include all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure, the focus is on providing medical care and support to the patient. Choices A, B, and C are integral parts of managing congestive heart failure. Physician follow-up appointments with transportation ensure continuity of care, client education about medication use is crucial for adherence, and a nutritional consult helps in managing the patient's diet. However, insurance review for reimbursement is not typically part of the clinical pathway as it pertains to financial aspects and is usually handled by billing departments or external agencies. Therefore, the correct answer is 'insurance review for reimbursement.'

4. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.

5. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

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