Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

2. A client is on a clear liquid diet. She drinks half of a 12-ounce juice, 4 ounces of soup, and has a 6-ounce JELLO�. How many milliliters of fluid did the patient ingest?

• A. 440 ml
• B. 480 ml
• C. 220 ml
• D. 660 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of fluid ingested, convert the ounces to milliliters. Given that 1 ounce is equal to 30 ml, the breakdown is as follows: Juice (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Soup (4 ounces): 4 x 30 = 120 ml. JELLO� (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Adding these together: 180 ml (juice) + 120 ml (soup) + 180 ml (JELLO�) = 480 ml. Therefore, the patient ingested a total of 480 ml of fluid. It's important to note that gelatin, ice cream, and similar items that are liquid at room temperature should be considered as fluids. Choice A, 440 ml, is incorrect as it does not account for the correct calculation. Choice C, 220 ml, is incorrect as it is significantly lower than the correct total. Choice D, 660 ml, is incorrect as it overestimates the total fluid intake.

3. Which of the following is not one of the four categories related to client care plans?

• A. privacy
• B. evaluation
• C. diagnosis
• D. outcome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The four categories related to client care plans are diagnosis, intervention, outcome, and evaluation. Privacy is not typically considered a distinct category in client care plans, as it is more of a fundamental aspect that underlies all care provided to clients. Choices B, C, and D are directly related to the components of client care plans, making them incorrect answers in this context.

4. What intervention should the nurse take for a client who has sustained a hyphema?

• A. Instruct the client to wear eye protectors in the future
• B. Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up
• C. Apply atropine eyedrops
• D. Apply an ice pack to the site of injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has sustained a hyphema is to keep them at bed rest, usually with the head of the bed raised. This positioning helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent further damage or rebleeding. Instructing the client to wear eye protectors in the future (Choice A) is not the immediate intervention required for a hyphema. Applying atropine eyedrops (Choice C) is not typically indicated for a hyphema. Applying an ice pack to the site of injury (Choice D) is not recommended for a hyphema as it can increase the risk of rebleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is to keep the client at bed rest.

5. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

• A. Inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
• B. Inability to communicate pain
• C. Inability to ambulate freely
• D. Inability to use a bedside commode

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

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