which of the following medications should be held 2448 hours prior to an electroencephalogram eeg
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

2. What is the role of the incident report in risk management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.

3. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

4. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' A specific test correctly identifies individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, since the lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, it means the test is good at ruling out the disease. 'Sensitive' (choice B) would be incorrect as sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (choice C) is incorrect as it describes the result rather than the test's characteristic. 'Marginal finding' (choice D) is unrelated to the concept of correctly identifying individuals without the disease.

5. Nail and foot care are essential in meeting the basic hygiene needs of clients. Important assessments by the nurse in this area include:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails. This assessment is crucial to identify abnormal discoloration, lesions, paronychia, dryness, breaks in the skin, pressure areas, or any other unusual appearances. Choice A is incorrect as a full-body assessment is broader and not specific to nail and foot care. Choice B is incorrect as lab work is not directly related to nail and foot assessments. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses only on foot corns and calluses, neglecting other important aspects of nail and foot care.

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