Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

2. A nurse working the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift is reviewing the records of the assigned clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m.
• B. A client scheduled for contrast computed tomography (CT) at noon.
• C. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m.
• D. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m. This client needs immediate assessment before the procedure, which may take up to 5 hours. The nurse should ensure the client is physically and emotionally prepared, check for fluid overload by assessing weight and lung sounds, review vital signs, and laboratory test results. The other clients described in the options have needs that are not as urgent. The client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m. may require information reinforcement and increased fluid intake before the procedure. The client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m. may need pain medication administered 30 minutes prior to the therapy. The client scheduled for a contrast CT at noon may need procedure information reinforcement and a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.

3. The LPN has been given assignments by the RN. Which assignment should the LPN question as being beyond the scope of the LPN?

• A. The LPN is assigned to care for a client with diabetes mellitus who needs instructions reinforced on how to self-administer insulin.
• B. The LPN is assigned to reinforce discharge teaching about dressing changes and medications to a 35-year-old man.
• C. The LPN is assigned to care for a 75-year-old woman, hospitalized for dehydration, who is being discharged home today with no medications.
• D. The LPN is assigned to care for a woman with newly diagnosed leukemia who will be receiving her initial dose of chemotherapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN should be able to recognize when an assignment is beyond their scope of practice. Administering chemotherapy for leukemia is not within the scope of practice for the LPN, and this assignment should be questioned. Choices A, B, and C are within the scope of practice for an LPN. Reinforcing teaching on self-administration of insulin, assisting with discharge instructions on dressing changes, and caring for a client being discharged with no medications are all appropriate tasks for an LPN.

4. Which of these would be the most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication?

• A. "Heparin refused during shift. Risks reviewed."?
• B. "The client refused the heparin injection when I tried to administer it. She yelled at me, saying, 'I do not want that injection right now!' and told me to leave the room. I explained the risks of not taking the medication. She seemed very annoyed that I tried to give it at that time. I will attempt again later in my shift."?
• C. "Subcutaneous Heparin injection was attempted to be given to the client per the physician's order. Client refused, stating, 'I do not want that injection.' Potential risks for refusing the medication were reviewed with the client, and the client verbalized understanding."?
• D. "Ct stated she did not want the SQ heparin inj at this time. Risks of not taking this med were reviewed with the ct, and the ct verbalized understanding."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication should include details such as the medication, the client's statement of refusal, and the review of potential risks. Choice C accurately captures all these essential elements, making it the correct answer. Choice A lacks details about the client's refusal and the review of risks. Choice B includes unnecessary emotional descriptions and a plan of action that might not be appropriate. Choice D uses abbreviations that may not be universally understood, lacks proper punctuation, and also does not provide a detailed account of the refusal and the review of risks.

5. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

• A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
• C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
• D. Corgard (nadolol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

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