Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?

• A. There is no rash.
• B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
• C. There is no fever.
• D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The disorder is uncommon in adults.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, is more common in children than in adults. It typically presents with a rash on the face that gives a 'slapped cheek' or 'slapped face' appearance. Fever may be present, and there is a characteristic rash associated with the condition. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is incorrect, making it the correct answer. The other statements are true regarding erythema infectiosum, making them incorrect choices. There is indeed a rash associated with erythema infectiosum, which can be a prominent feature. Fever may also be present in individuals with this condition. Additionally, the 'slapped face' appearance is a classic characteristic of erythema infectiosum.

2. Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?

• A. blood urea nitrogen
• B. magnesium
• C. bilirubin
• D. prolactin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.

3. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A.
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

4. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?

• A. in the working phase
• B. in the termination phase
• C. in the orientation phase
• D. when the client initially brings up the topic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.

5. The nurse receives an assignment of three clients. Which of the following should the nurse consider as the highest priority when determining which client to assess first?

• A. the client who most recently rang their call bell
• B. the client who has been waiting the longest for their call bell to be answered
• C. the client who is in the most pain
• D. the client who may have a risk for an airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing a client with a potential airway obstruction first based on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) principle. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, making it the highest priority. Choices A and B focus on call bells and waiting times, which are important but not life-threatening in comparison to airway concerns. While pain management is essential, it takes precedence after addressing immediate life-threatening issues like airway compromise.

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