Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?

• A. There is no rash.
• B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
• C. There is no fever.
• D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The disorder is uncommon in adults.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, is more common in children than in adults. It typically presents with a rash on the face that gives a 'slapped cheek' or 'slapped face' appearance. Fever may be present, and there is a characteristic rash associated with the condition. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is incorrect, making it the correct answer. The other statements are true regarding erythema infectiosum, making them incorrect choices. There is indeed a rash associated with erythema infectiosum, which can be a prominent feature. Fever may also be present in individuals with this condition. Additionally, the 'slapped face' appearance is a classic characteristic of erythema infectiosum.

2. A nurse manager asks a nurse to work overtime because of a short-staffing problem. The nurse has made plans to do Christmas shopping after work and does not want to work overtime. What is the most assertive response by the nurse to her nurse manager?

• A. "I'm not working overtime today."
• B. "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime."
• C. "You know how I hate to work overtime."
• D. "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse should assertively communicate her unavailability for overtime without being confrontational. Option A, "I'm not working overtime today," is too blunt and may come across as rude. Option C, "You know how I hate to work overtime," is not assertive but rather passive-aggressive. Option D, "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this," is a passive-aggressive response as it implies compliance while expressing discontent. Option B, "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime," is the most appropriate response as it clearly states the nurse's unavailability without unnecessary aggression.

3. When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. mental confusion
• B. muscular weakness
• C. sensory loss
• D. emotional liability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.

4. Which NSAID is comparable to morphine in efficacy?

• A. Feldene
• B. Stodal
• C. Toradol
• D. Elavil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Toradol. Toradol is the first injectable NSAID that has been found to be comparable to morphine in terms of efficacy. Feldene (choice A) is not known for being comparable to morphine in efficacy. Stodal (choice B) is a homeopathic cough syrup and not an NSAID. Elavil (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant and not an NSAID, so it is not comparable to morphine in efficacy. Therefore, Toradol is the most appropriate choice as it matches the description provided in the question.

5. The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?

• A. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
• B. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the affected limb.
• C. Push the client toward the bed, and pivot him on the affected limb.
• D. Stand the client on both legs, and push him toward the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.

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