NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?
- A. There is no rash.
- B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
- C. There is no fever.
- D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The disorder is uncommon in adults.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, is more common in children than in adults. It typically presents with a rash on the face that gives a 'slapped cheek' or 'slapped face' appearance. Fever may be present, and there is a characteristic rash associated with the condition. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is incorrect, making it the correct answer. The other statements are true regarding erythema infectiosum, making them incorrect choices. There is indeed a rash associated with erythema infectiosum, which can be a prominent feature. Fever may also be present in individuals with this condition. Additionally, the 'slapped face' appearance is a classic characteristic of erythema infectiosum.
2. A client with a closed chest tube drainage system accidentally disconnects the chest tube while being turned by the nurse. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Submerge the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water
- B. Clamp the chest tube with a Kelly clamp
- C. Call the health care provider
- D. Instruct the client to inhale and hold his breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a chest tube becomes disconnected, the priority action is to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. This helps prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing complications. Calling the health care provider is important but not the first action in this emergency. Instructing the client to inhale and hold his breath should be avoided as it can introduce atmospheric air into the pleural space, leading to potential issues. Clamping the chest tube is generally contraindicated, especially in cases of residual air leak or pneumothorax, as it may result in a tension pneumothorax by preventing air from escaping.
3. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?
- A. gynecologist
- B. physiatrist
- C. urologist
- D. proctologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.
4. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?
- A. paralysis
- B. neuropathy
- C. seizure disorder
- D. myocardial infarction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.
5. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?
- A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
- B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
- C. Administers the injection in the thigh
- D. Places the client in the Sims position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.
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