Nursing Elites

1. The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:

• A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible.
• B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul.
• C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
• D. supporting the needs of the family and client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct goal of palliative care is to provide comprehensive care that addresses the physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs of the dying client until the end of life. Therefore, the statement 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death' is incorrect as interventions are still essential to ensure comfort and quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are all aligned with the goals of palliative care, focusing on improving the quality of life, providing holistic care, and supporting both the family and the client.

2. Which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when consumed by a client with an ileostomy?

• A. eggs
• B. coffee
• C. fish
• D. garlic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is coffee. Coffee can cause diarrhea in clients with an ileostomy due to its stimulating effect on the digestive system, leading to increased bowel movements. Eggs, fish, and garlic are less likely to cause diarrhea in individuals with an ileostomy. However, they may contribute to odor due to the way they are digested and broken down in the body, affecting the smell of stool output but not necessarily causing diarrhea.

3. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

4. A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding?

• A. The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
• B. The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care
• C. The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis
• D. The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A care map, also known as a critical pathway, outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge or the end of a treatment phase. It includes clinical assessments, treatments, dietary interventions, activity therapies, client education, and discharge planning. While it may identify nursing diagnoses, a care map is developed by all disciplines caring for the client type and is used by the interdisciplinary team, not just the nurse alone. Choice B is incorrect because a care map is not solely for the nurse but for the entire interdisciplinary team. Choice C is incorrect as care maps are individualized plans developed by the interdisciplinary team, not just by a nurse. Choice D is incorrect as a care map is not solely about nursing diagnoses but encompasses a comprehensive plan of care.

5. Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for hepatitis. Tattooing puts a client at risk for blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen, while herpes and syphilis are spread through direct contact like sexual activity. Therefore, hepatitis is the most relevant infection to screen for after getting a tattoo.

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