Nursing Elites

1. What is the term for the tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor?

• A. potency
• B. efficacy
• C. kinetics
• D. affinity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'affinity.' Affinity refers to the close relationship or mutual attraction between a drug and its receptor, indicating the strength of the drug-receptor bonding. Potency (Choice A) is related to the dose of a drug needed to produce a specific effect. Efficacy (Choice B) refers to a drug's ability to generate the desired effect. Kinetics (Choice C) deals with forces affecting the motion of material bodies or changes in a system, which is not directly associated with the bonding between a drug and its receptor.

2. Which of the following is true of advanced directives?

• A. They should be appropriately documented in the client's chart.
• B. They are only applicable if the client has a terminal illness.
• C. They are required if the client is unconscious.
• D. They are non-legal requests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that advanced directives should be appropriately documented in the client's chart. Advanced directives are legal requests regarding a client's healthcare that come into effect under specific circumstances, regardless of the severity of their illness or level of consciousness. Choice B is incorrect because advanced directives can cover various healthcare decisions, not just terminal illnesses. Choice C is incorrect as advanced directives can be established and documented while the client is conscious, not only if they are unconscious. Choice D is incorrect because advanced directives are indeed legal requests, not non-legal requests.

3. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
• B. Call the nursing supervisor.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
• D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.

4. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?

• A. Do nothing to the client.
• B. Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.
• C. Help the client stay in the bed without falling out.
• D. Help the client with better posture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.

5. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

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