Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
• B. Check the white blood cell count.
• C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
• D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.

2. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
• B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
• C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
• D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.

3. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
• B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
• C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
• D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

4. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?

• A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
• B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
• C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
• D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.

5. After a renal biopsy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?

• A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours
• B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood
• C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics
• D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a renal biopsy, it is essential to maintain bed rest and frequently assess the client's vital signs and the puncture site. The nurse should test the urine periodically for occult blood to detect any bleeding, which could be a complication of the procedure. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours is not necessary after a renal biopsy and could potentially lead to dehydration. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics is not a standard intervention post-renal biopsy unless contraindicated for a specific reason. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances is generally not recommended immediately after a renal biopsy due to the need for bed rest to prevent complications.

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