HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The patient is receiving sulfadiazine. The healthcare provider knows that this patient’s daily fluid intake should be at least which amount?
- A. 1000 mL/day
- B. 1200 mL/day
- C. 2000 mL/day
- D. 2400 mL/day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sulfadiazine may lead to crystalluria, a condition where crystals form in the urine. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by ensuring urine is dilute enough to prevent crystal formation. The recommended daily fluid intake for a patient receiving sulfadiazine is at least 2000 mL/day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of fluid intake to prevent crystalluria in patients on sulfadiazine.
2. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:
- A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan
- B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor
- C. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.
3. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
- A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
- C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
- D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?
- A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
- C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
- D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.
5. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is a primary goal of treatment?
- A. Improving oxygenation.
- B. Reducing inflammation.
- C. Improving airflow.
- D. Reducing airway constriction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of asthma is to improve airflow. Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, constriction, and increased mucus production, leading to airflow limitation. Improving airflow helps ensure adequate oxygenation and reduces symptoms. While reducing inflammation and airway constriction are important aspects of asthma management, the primary goal is to optimize airflow to improve respiratory function and quality of life.
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