Nursing Elites

1. The patient is receiving sulfadiazine. The healthcare provider knows that this patient’s daily fluid intake should be at least which amount?

• A. 1000 mL/day
• B. 1200 mL/day
• C. 2000 mL/day
• D. 2400 mL/day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sulfadiazine may lead to crystalluria, a condition where crystals form in the urine. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by ensuring urine is dilute enough to prevent crystal formation. The recommended daily fluid intake for a patient receiving sulfadiazine is at least 2000 mL/day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of fluid intake to prevent crystalluria in patients on sulfadiazine.

2. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

• A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
• B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
• D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

3. What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Escherichia coli infection
• B. Staphylococcus aureus infection
• C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
• D. Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is responsible for the majority of UTIs, especially in women. E. coli is a normal inhabitant of the bowel and can enter the urinary tract through the urethra, leading to infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are less common causes of UTIs compared to E. coli. Staphylococcus aureus typically causes skin and soft tissue infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is known for causing pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

4. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is the most important indicator of respiratory function?

• A. Oxygen saturation.
• B. Respiratory rate.
• C. Arterial blood gases.
• D. Peak expiratory flow rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The peak expiratory flow rate is the most important indicator of respiratory function in asthma because it measures how quickly air can be exhaled, reflecting the severity of airflow limitation. Oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important in assessing oxygenation, but it does not directly reflect respiratory function. Respiratory rate (Choice B) can provide information on breathing patterns but does not quantify airflow limitation. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) give information about gas exchange but are not as specific for assessing asthma control and severity as peak expiratory flow rate.

5. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

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