Nursing Elites

1. A client recovering from a urologic procedure is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow?

• A. Severe pain
• B. Overflow incontinence
• C. Hypotension
• D. Blood-tinged urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Overflow incontinence.' The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This obstruction can lead to overflow incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended. Severe pain is not typically associated with an obstruction of urine flow. Hypotension is unrelated to this issue. Blood-tinged urine is not a direct indication of an obstruction of urine flow but may indicate other conditions like trauma or infection.

2. A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child’s dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?

• A. 5 mL PO BID
• B. 5 mL PO daily
• C. 10 mL PO BID
• D. 10 mL PO daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: '5 mL PO BID.' To calculate the child’s daily dose requirement, you multiply the child's weight (10 kg) by the prescribed dosage per kg, which is 8 mg for TMP and 40 mg for SMX. This results in a total daily requirement of 80 mg of TMP and 400 mg of SMX. To divide this into two doses, each dose should contain half of the total daily requirement, which is 40 mg TMP and 200 mg SMX. Since the liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL, the correct dose per administration is 5 mL. Therefore, 5 mL PO BID is the correct order. Choice B, '5 mL PO daily,' is incorrect as the total daily dose needs to be divided into two doses. Choices C and D, '10 mL PO BID' and '10 mL PO daily,' respectively, are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated dosage requirements based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage per kg.

3. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

• A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
• C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
• D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.

4. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
• B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
• C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.

5. A client is being prepared for a colonoscopy. Into which position does the nurse assist the client for the procedure?

• A. Left Sims' position
• B. Lithotomy position
• C. Knee-chest position
• D. Right Sims' position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a colonoscopy, the client is positioned in the left Sims' position. This position is chosen as it optimally utilizes the client’s anatomy to facilitate the introduction of the colonoscope. The lithotomy position (Choice B) is commonly used for gynecological exams, not colonoscopies. The knee-chest position (Choice C) is typically employed for rectal examinations or certain surgical procedures, not colonoscopies. The right Sims' position (Choice D) is a less common position for colonoscopy compared to the left Sims' position.

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