HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?
- A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
- B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
- C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
- D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.
2. After a renal biopsy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?
- A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours
- B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood
- C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics
- D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a renal biopsy, it is essential to maintain bed rest and frequently assess the client's vital signs and the puncture site. The nurse should test the urine periodically for occult blood to detect any bleeding, which could be a complication of the procedure. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours is not necessary after a renal biopsy and could potentially lead to dehydration. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics is not a standard intervention post-renal biopsy unless contraindicated for a specific reason. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances is generally not recommended immediately after a renal biopsy due to the need for bed rest to prevent complications.
3. A client recovering from a urologic procedure is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow?
- A. Severe pain
- B. Overflow incontinence
- C. Hypotension
- D. Blood-tinged urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Overflow incontinence.' The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This obstruction can lead to overflow incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended. Severe pain is not typically associated with an obstruction of urine flow. Hypotension is unrelated to this issue. Blood-tinged urine is not a direct indication of an obstruction of urine flow but may indicate other conditions like trauma or infection.
4. The client has been receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications that is most likely to occur?
- A. Electrolyte imbalance
- B. Peritonitis
- C. Infection
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Peritonitis is the most likely complication to occur in clients receiving peritoneal dialysis due to the risk of infection. Peritonitis is a serious inflammation of the peritoneum lining the abdominal cavity, commonly caused by infection. While electrolyte imbalance and hyperglycemia are possible complications in some cases, peritonitis poses a more immediate and severe threat to the client's health. Infection is a general term that can encompass peritonitis but is not as specific as directly identifying peritonitis as the primary concern in this scenario.
5. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
- A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
- B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
- C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
- D. Does the client take digitalis?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.
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