HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?
- A. Increase fluid intake.
- B. Take diphenhydramine.
- C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
- D. Continue taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.
2. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
- B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
- C. Wear prescription glasses
- D. Eat a diet high in carotene
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.
3. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
- B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
- C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
- D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.
4. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:
- A. Competent venous valves.
- B. Decreased blood volume.
- C. Increase in muscular activity.
- D. Increased venous pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.
5. A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access