Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Take diphenhydramine.
• C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
• D. Continue taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease missed dialysis yesterday to attend a funeral. The client's wife calls the home health nurse and reports that her husband is lethargic and hard to arouse. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Apply the client's home oxygen.
• B. Check for a thrill and bruit at the client's dialysis access site.
• C. Ensure the client avoids salt intake for the rest of the day.
• D. Take the client to the emergency department (ED).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide is to take the client to the emergency department (ED). Missing dialysis can lead to severe complications in clients with chronic kidney disease, such as electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload. Lethargy and difficulty in arousing the client suggest a critical situation that requires immediate medical attention. Applying home oxygen, checking the dialysis access site, and ensuring salt intake avoidance, although important, are not as urgent as seeking emergency care to address the potential severe complications from missed dialysis.

3. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?

• A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
• B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
• D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.

4. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:

• A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
• B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
• C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
• D. Determining how long the client can walk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.

5. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

• A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
• B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
• C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
• D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

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