Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Take diphenhydramine.
• C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
• D. Continue taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.

2. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?

• A. Left ventricular atrophy.
• B. Irregular heartbeats.
• C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
• D. Pacemaker function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.

3. A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states, 'I have not urinated very much in the last few days.' The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority?

• A. Give the client a bottle of water immediately.
• B. Start an intravenous line for fluids.
• C. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily.
• D. Perform an electrocardiogram.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to give the client a bottle of water immediately. The athlete's symptoms of decreased urination, along with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and low blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg, indicate mild dehydration. Rehydration should begin promptly to address the dehydration. Teaching the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily is a good long-term strategy but not the immediate priority. Starting an intravenous line for fluids may be necessary if oral hydration is insufficient or if the degree of dehydration is severe. Performing an electrocardiogram is not indicated at this time as the priority is addressing the dehydration.

4. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Diabetes.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a major risk factor for stroke because it puts increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, making them more prone to damage and increasing the likelihood of a stroke. While diabetes, obesity, and smoking are also risk factors for stroke, hypertension is the most commonly associated condition with a high risk of stroke due to its direct impact on the blood vessels.

5. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. IV fluid infusion.
• B. Pedal pulses.
• C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
• D. Capillary refill time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.

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