Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Take diphenhydramine.
• C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
• D. Continue taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

3. Which of the following is a common cause of acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Dehydration
• C. Infection
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infection is a common cause of acute kidney injury because when the body fights an infection, it activates the immune response, leading to inflammation. This inflammatory response can affect the kidneys and impair their function. While hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for chronic kidney disease, it is not a direct cause of acute kidney injury. Dehydration (choice B) can lead to prerenal acute kidney injury due to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, but infection is a more common cause of acute kidney injury. Hypotension (choice D) can contribute to prerenal acute kidney injury, but it is not a direct cause like infection.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is being educated about the importance of a low-sodium diet. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can eat canned vegetables as long as I rinse them first.
• B. I can use table salt sparingly.
• C. I can eat frozen dinners if they are labeled low-sodium.
• D. I can eat whatever I want as long as I avoid salty foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with chronic renal failure need to strictly limit their sodium intake. Advising the client to use table salt sparingly is incorrect as they should avoid table salt altogether to adhere to a low-sodium diet. Choice A is correct as rinsing canned vegetables can help reduce their sodium content. Choice C is correct as consuming frozen dinners labeled low-sodium can be a suitable option. Choice D is incorrect as it implies that avoiding only salty foods is sufficient, when in fact, overall sodium intake needs to be monitored closely.

5. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Increased urine output.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.

Similar Questions