HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?
- A. Increase fluid intake.
- B. Take diphenhydramine.
- C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
- D. Continue taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.
2. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?
- A. Daily weight measurements.
- B. Monitoring intake and output.
- C. Assessing skin turgor.
- D. Checking for peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.
3. The client with diabetes mellitus should be cautioned by the nurse taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following?
- A. Hypokalemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms. When a client with diabetes mellitus taking a sulfonylurea consumes alcohol, it can lead to disulfiram-like symptoms, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. Choice A, hypokalemia, is incorrect because sulfonylureas do not typically lead to low potassium levels. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as sulfonylureas are not associated with high potassium levels. Choice C, hypocalcemia, is also incorrect because sulfonylureas are not known to cause low calcium levels.
4. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
- A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
- C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
- D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.
5. A client with chronic renal failure is on a low-protein diet. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse when the client asks why this diet is necessary?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure because it helps prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Excess protein can lead to the accumulation of waste products that the compromised kidneys may not effectively filter out, further burdening the already impaired renal function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by minimizing the production of waste products that can exacerbate the condition, not specifically to reduce kidney workload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent dehydration.
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