HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?
- A. Pancreatitis
 - B. Pacemaker insertion
 - C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
 - D. Chronic airway limitation
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.
2. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
 - B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
 - C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
 - D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.
3. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?
- A. Flank pain
 - B. Periorbital edema
 - C. Bloody and cloudy urine
 - D. Enlarged abdomen
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.
4. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?
- A. 3.0 mEq/L
 - B. 3.8 mEq/L
 - C. 4.2 mEq/L
 - D. 5.1 mEq/L
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
5. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?
- A. Age over 60 years.
 - B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
 - C. History of heart failure.
 - D. Cigarette smoking.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.
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