Nursing Elites

1. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Pacemaker insertion
• C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• D. Chronic airway limitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.

2. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
• B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
• C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
• D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.

3. The patient has a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 82/58 mm Hg, is lethargic, complaining of muscle weakness, and has had gastroenteritis for several days. Based on these findings, which sodium value would the nurse expect?

• A. 126 mEq/L
• B. 140 mEq/L
• C. 145 mEq/L
• D. 158 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tachycardia, hypotension, lethargy, muscle weakness, and gastroenteritis suggests hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is characterized by a serum sodium level below the normal range of 135-145 mEq/L. A serum sodium level of 126 mEq/L falls significantly below this range, indicating hyponatremia. Choice B (140 mEq/L) and Choice C (145 mEq/L) are within the normal range for serum sodium levels and would not explain the patient's symptoms. Choice D (158 mEq/L) is above the normal range and would indicate hypernatremia, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.

4. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction today?

• A. Use a metal eye shield on the operative eye during the day.
• B. Administer eye ointment before applying eye drops.
• C. Sexual activities may be resumed after returning home.
• D. Light housekeeping is safe to do, but avoid heavy lifting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction is to advise them that light housekeeping is safe to do, but they should avoid heavy lifting. Heavy lifting can strain the surgical site and potentially lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as a metal eye shield is usually recommended during sleep, not during the day. Choice B is incorrect because eye ointment should typically be administered after applying eye drops to prevent dilution of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as sexual activities should usually be avoided for a specific period post-surgery as advised by the healthcare provider.

5. The client has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status?

• A. Radial pulse.
• B. Femoral pulse.
• C. Apical pulse.
• D. Dorsalis pedis pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse is crucial after a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery to determine adequate circulation distal to the surgical site. A strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates sufficient blood flow to the foot, which is essential for monitoring postoperative status. The radial pulse (A) is not the most relevant assessment as it does not provide direct information on circulation in the lower extremities. The femoral pulse (B) may not accurately reflect circulation distal to the surgical site. The apical pulse (C) is used primarily to assess the heartbeat and cardiac function, not circulation in the lower extremities.

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