Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following lab results would be expected?

• A. Increased bilirubin levels.
• B. Decreased albumin levels.
• C. Increased liver enzymes.
• D. Decreased platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with liver cirrhosis, increased bilirubin levels would be expected. Liver cirrhosis leads to impaired liver function, causing a decrease in the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased albumin levels (choice B) may occur in liver cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of proteins, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels. Increased liver enzymes (choice C) can be seen in liver damage but are not as characteristic as elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased platelet count (choice D) can occur in liver cirrhosis due to hypersplenism, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels in this context.

2. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the client’s recent history?

• A. Pyelonephritis
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Bladder cancer
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pre-renal acute kidney injury, there is a decrease in perfusion to the kidneys. Myocardial infarction can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, causing pre-renal AKI. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic/intrarenal cause of AKI involving kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are post-renal causes of AKI due to urinary flow obstruction, not related to perfusion issues seen in pre-renal AKI.

4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
• C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
• D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.

5. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

Similar Questions