HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system has undergone a chest x-ray, which revealed that the affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the next assessment of the chest tube system will reveal:
- A. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber
- B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Increased drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the client's lung is fully reexpanded, the chest tube drainage system will no longer be actively draining, and there will be no fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Option B, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, indicates an air leak in the system, which is not expected when the lung is fully expanded. Option C, increased drainage in the collection chamber, would not be expected when the lung is reexpanded as there should be minimal to no drainage. Option D, continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber, would not be appropriate when the lung is fully reexpanded and the chest tube is typically on a water seal system at this point to promote reexpansion and prevent air from entering the pleural space.
2. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.
3. A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, “I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child’s bladder.” How should the nurse respond?
- A. I understand how you feel. I would be mortified.
- B. Incontinence pads will minimize leaks in public.
- C. I can teach you strategies to help control your incontinence.
- D. More women experience incontinence than you might think.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client’s concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client’s concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.
4. A client tells the nurse that he has been experiencing frequent heartburn and has been 'living on antacids.' For which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize a risk?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. In this scenario, the client's frequent use of antacids containing alkaline components can lead to an excess of bicarbonate in the body, causing metabolic alkalosis. Oral antacids work by neutralizing stomach acid, potentially leading to an alkaline shift in the body's pH balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is not typically associated with antacid use. Respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system dysfunction rather than antacid ingestion.
5. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?
- A. Aching pain in the left calf.
- B. Burning pain in the left calf.
- C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
- D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.
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