Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:

• A. 7%
• B. 9%
• C. 10%
• D. 15%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.

2. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

• A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
• C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
• D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.

3. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?

• A. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
• B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
• C. Minimizing activity.
• D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.

4. A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client?

• A. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus every 24 hours
• B. Taping the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system
• C. Adding 20 mL of sterile water to the suction control chamber every shift
• D. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber every 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed chest drainage system is to tape the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system. This is done to prevent accidental disconnection, ensuring the system functions properly. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus should be done more frequently than once every 24 hours to monitor for any air leaks. Adding sterile water to the suction control chamber is not necessary every shift; it should be done as needed to maintain the appropriate water level. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber should be done more frequently than every 24 hours, with hourly monitoring during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter to assess for changes or complications.

5. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

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