Nursing Elites

1. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?

• A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
• D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the client’s recent history?

• A. Pyelonephritis
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Bladder cancer
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pre-renal acute kidney injury, there is a decrease in perfusion to the kidneys. Myocardial infarction can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, causing pre-renal AKI. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic/intrarenal cause of AKI involving kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are post-renal causes of AKI due to urinary flow obstruction, not related to perfusion issues seen in pre-renal AKI.

3. A client with diabetes is taking insulin lispro (Humalog) injections. The nurse should advise the client to eat:

• A. Within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection.
• B. 1 hour after the injection.
• C. At any time, because timing of meals with lispro injections is unnecessary.
• D. 2 hours before the injection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to eat within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection. Insulin lispro, also known as Humalog, is a rapid-acting insulin that starts working very quickly. Eating shortly after the injection helps match the food intake with the insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 1 hour after the injection may lead to a mismatch between insulin activity and food intake. Choice C is incorrect as timing meals with lispro injections is essential to optimize glycemic control. Choice D is incorrect as eating 2 hours before the injection is not in alignment with the rapid action of insulin lispro and may lead to fluctuations in blood sugar levels.

4. An adult client who received partial thickness burns on 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit. Which fluid should the nurse prepare to administer during the client's burn recovery?

• A. 5% dextrose in water
• B. 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline
• C. Total parenteral nutrition
• D. Lactated Ringer's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the burn recovery phase, the nurse should prepare to administer Lactated Ringer's solution. Lactated Ringer's is the preferred fluid choice for burn patients as it helps replace lost fluids and electrolytes, maintain perfusion, and support organ function. Option A, 5% dextrose in water, is not the appropriate choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Option B, 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline, does not provide the necessary electrolytes needed for burn recovery. Option C, Total parenteral nutrition, may be considered later in the treatment but is not the initial fluid of choice for burn recovery.

5. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:

• A. Competent venous valves.
• B. Decreased blood volume.
• C. Increase in muscular activity.
• D. Increased venous pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.

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