Nursing Elites

1. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?

• A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
• D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.

2. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

• A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
• B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
• C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
• D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

3. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is a primary goal of treatment?

• A. Improving oxygenation.
• B. Reducing inflammation.
• C. Improving airflow.
• D. Reducing airway constriction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of asthma is to improve airflow. Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, constriction, and increased mucus production, leading to airflow limitation. Improving airflow helps ensure adequate oxygenation and reduces symptoms. While reducing inflammation and airway constriction are important aspects of asthma management, the primary goal is to optimize airflow to improve respiratory function and quality of life.

4. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

5. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
• B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
• C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
• D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

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