HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should notify the physician of which of the following findings?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
 - B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
 - C. Decreased urine output.
 - D. Increased blood pressure.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is an indication of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding indicating proper dialysis function and should not raise concern. Decreased urine output may be expected in a client undergoing dialysis due to the removal of excess fluids from the body. Increased blood pressure is a common complication in clients with kidney disease but is not directly related to cloudy dialysate outflow.
2. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:
- A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
 - B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
 - C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
 - D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.
3. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Lower sodium
 - B. Lower potassium
 - C. Higher phosphorus
 - D. A & B
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.
4. The client with chronic renal failure is being educated on dietary restrictions. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Bananas.
 - B. Oranges.
 - C. Rice.
 - D. Apples.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, and clients with chronic renal failure are often advised to follow a low-potassium diet to prevent hyperkalemia. Oranges and apples are also high in potassium and should be avoided by clients with renal issues. Rice, on the other hand, is low in potassium and is generally considered safe for individuals with chronic renal failure to consume in moderation.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
 - B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
 - C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
 - D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.
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