a nurse plans care for a client with overflow incontinence which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to assist with eli
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system has undergone a chest x-ray, which revealed that the affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the next assessment of the chest tube system will reveal:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the client's lung is fully reexpanded, the chest tube drainage system will no longer be actively draining, and there will be no fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Option B, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, indicates an air leak in the system, which is not expected when the lung is fully expanded. Option C, increased drainage in the collection chamber, would not be expected when the lung is reexpanded as there should be minimal to no drainage. Option D, continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber, would not be appropriate when the lung is fully reexpanded and the chest tube is typically on a water seal system at this point to promote reexpansion and prevent air from entering the pleural space.

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.

5. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

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