Nursing Elites

1. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

2. A client with elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) triggers the release of this hormone due to which disorder?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Dehydration
• C. Renal failure
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases tubular permeability to water, causing more water absorption into the capillaries. ADH is released in response to a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, such as in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema do not typically lead to the release of ADH. Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition, renal failure affects kidney function, and edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues, none of which directly stimulate the release of ADH.

3. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Administering a sedative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
• D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.

4. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

5. Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

• A. Cigarette smoking.
• B. High-cholesterol diet.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is the most significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to its role in insulin resistance. Excess body fat, especially around the abdomen, leads to increased production of inflammatory markers and hormones that can cause insulin resistance. While cigarette smoking, high-cholesterol diet, and hypertension can contribute to health issues, they are not as directly linked to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus as obesity.

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