Nursing Elites

1. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

2. After an endotracheal tube is placed in a client who experienced sudden onset of respiratory distress, what should the nurse do?

• A. Secure the tube in place with tape
• B. Order a chest x-ray for the client
• C. Document the depth of tube insertion
• D. Auscultate both lungs for breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After endotracheal tube insertion, the nurse should auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds. This step helps confirm proper tube placement and adequate ventilation. Auscultation of breath sounds is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the trachea and not in the esophagus. While securing the tube with tape is important, it is not the immediate priority after insertion. Ordering a chest x-ray may be necessary but is not the first action to take immediately post-intubation. Documenting the depth of tube insertion is important but ensuring proper ventilation through auscultation takes precedence.

3. A client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months is being assessed by a nurse. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)

• A. How much water do you drink every day?
• B. Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?
• C. Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answers are all of the above (D). Asking about fluid intake (choice A) is important as it can affect the risk of cystitis. Estrogen levels (choice B) can also impact the likelihood of recurrent cystitis. Family history (choice C) is relevant as certain genetic factors can predispose individuals to cystitis. Cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to reduce the risk of bacterial cystitis by increasing the acidic pH. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are all pertinent questions to ask during the assessment of a client with recurrent bacterial cystitis.

4. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
• B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
• C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Polyuria and excessive thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.

5. A patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to treat a urinary tract infection complains of a sore throat. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. Complete blood count with differential
• B. Throat culture
• C. Urinalysis
• D. Coagulation studies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection presents with a sore throat, the nurse should request a complete blood count with differential. TMP-SMX can cause life-threatening adverse effects such as agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a low white blood cell count, which can manifest as a sore throat. Ordering a complete blood count with differential helps assess the patient's white blood cell count to detect any potential serious adverse effects. Throat culture (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific signs of a throat infection. Urinalysis (Choice C) is not relevant for assessing a sore throat. Coagulation studies (Choice D) are not typically indicated for a sore throat symptom.

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