Nursing Elites

1. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

2. The patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection and taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab values when monitoring for this drug’s side effects?

• A. Complete blood counts
• B. Electrolytes
• C. Liver enzymes
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin, which is a macrolide antibiotic, in combination with acetaminophen, a potentially hepatotoxic drug, the nurse should monitor liver enzymes. High doses of macrolides when taken with hepatotoxic drugs like acetaminophen can lead to hepatotoxicity. Reviewing liver enzymes helps in early detection of liver damage. Complete blood counts (Choice A) are not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen. Electrolytes (Choice B) are not directly impacted by these medications. Urinalysis (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for monitoring the side effects of azithromycin and acetaminophen combination therapy.

3. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?

• A. To lower blood pressure.
• B. To promote the absorption of glucose into cells.
• C. To increase blood glucose levels.
• D. To decrease blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the absorption of glucose into cells. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect as insulin does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C is inaccurate as insulin works to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because insulin's primary role is to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.

4. Following the diagnosis of angina pectoris, a client reports being unable to walk up two flights of stairs without pain. Which of the following measures would most likely help the client prevent this problem?

• A. Climb the stairs early in the day.
• B. Rest for at least an hour before climbing the stairs.
• C. Take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs.
• D. Lie down after climbing the stairs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs. Nitroglycerin helps prevent angina by dilating the coronary arteries, which increases blood flow to the heart. This medication can help reduce the chest pain and discomfort experienced during physical exertion. Climing the stairs early in the day (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of inadequate blood flow to the heart. Resting for at least an hour before climbing the stairs (Choice B) may not be as effective in preventing angina as taking nitroglycerin. Lying down after climbing the stairs (Choice D) does not offer a preventive measure for angina; it is more focused on post-activity rest rather than prevention.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

Similar Questions