Nursing Elites

1. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

2. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.

3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys' reduced function leads to the decreased excretion of potassium, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. This can be dangerous as hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is less common in chronic kidney disease as the impaired kidneys tend to retain potassium. Hypernatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions such as dehydration, not primarily in chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is also possible in chronic kidney disease but is less common compared to hyperkalemia.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The nurse will be most concerned if the patient reports which symptom?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Dysuria
• C. Nausea
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tinnitus. When furosemide and an aminoglycoside antibiotic are used together, there is an increased risk of ototoxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is a common early sign of ototoxicity. Dizziness (choice A) is a common side effect of furosemide but not specifically related to this drug interaction. Dysuria (choice B) is painful urination and is not directly associated with this drug combination. Nausea (choice C) is a common side effect of furosemide but is not specifically indicative of ototoxicity caused by the drug interaction.

5. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?

• A. Hypermagnesemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.

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