Nursing Elites

1. A client who has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) due to an aminoglycoside antibiotic has moved from the oliguric phase to the diuretic phase of AKI. Which parameters are most important for the nurse to plan to carefully monitor?

• A. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids.
• B. Uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces.
• C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• D. Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), monitoring for hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes is crucial. Hypovolemia can occur due to the increased urine output in this phase, potentially leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Electrolyte imbalances can result in ECG changes, such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful monitoring of fluid status and ECG findings helps in preventing complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most crucial parameters to monitor during the diuretic phase of AKI. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids, uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces, and elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important considerations in other phases of AKI or in other conditions, but they are not the primary focus during the diuretic phase when hypovolemia and ECG changes take precedence.

2. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?

• A. Frequent cough
• B. Pain
• C. Nocturia
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.

5. A patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia after complaining of high fever and shortness of breath. The patient was not able to produce sputum for a culture. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order

• A. a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
• B. a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
• C. multiple antibiotics.
• D. the pneumococcal vaccine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario where the offending organism causing pneumonia is unknown due to the inability to produce sputum for culture, the appropriate choice is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used when the specific pathogen is unidentified. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria and are chosen based on culture and sensitivity results. Using multiple antibiotics without a clear indication from culture and sensitivity testing can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended in this situation. Additionally, the pneumococcal vaccine is preventive and does not treat an ongoing infection like pneumonia.

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