HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
- B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
- C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
- D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.
2. What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?
- A. Atherosclerosis.
- B. Hyperlipidemia.
- C. Diabetes.
- D. Smoking.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Atherosclerosis. It is the primary cause of coronary artery disease, as it involves the buildup of plaque in the arteries, restricting blood flow to the heart. Hyperlipidemia (choice B) contributes to atherosclerosis by increasing cholesterol levels in the blood but is not the direct cause of coronary artery disease. Diabetes (choice C) can accelerate atherosclerosis due to high blood sugar levels, but it is not the most common cause. Smoking (choice D) is a significant risk factor for developing coronary artery disease but is not the primary cause.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had severe vomiting. The patient’s serum sodium level is 130 mEq/L. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order which treatment?
- A. Diuretic therapy
- B. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline
- C. Intravenous normal saline 0.9%
- D. Oral sodium supplements
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has hyponatremia with a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. For a serum sodium level between 125 and 135 mEq/L, the appropriate treatment is intravenous normal saline 0.9%. Normal saline helps to increase the sodium content in the vascular fluid. Diuretic therapy would exacerbate sodium and fluid depletion, which is not suitable for a patient already dehydrated from severe vomiting. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline is typically reserved for severe hyponatremia with a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L. Oral sodium supplements are not feasible in this case as the patient is vomiting and may not be able to tolerate oral intake easily.
4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following lab values would be expected?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low hemoglobin levels.
- C. Elevated potassium levels.
- D. Low sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, elevated creatinine levels are expected due to impaired kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product that is typically filtered out by the kidneys. With kidney disease, the clearance of creatinine is reduced, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Low hemoglobin levels (choice B) may be seen in chronic kidney disease due to decreased production of erythropoietin. However, elevated potassium levels (choice C) and low sodium levels (choice D) are more commonly associated with kidney dysfunction but are not as specific indicators of chronic kidney disease as elevated creatinine levels.
5. A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
- B. Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
- C. Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
- D. If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse advising the client to come in provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential problem.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access