Nursing Elites

1. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain.
• B. My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30.
• C. Smoking should be stopped as soon as possible.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.

2. The client with diabetes mellitus should be cautioned by the nurse taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms. When a client with diabetes mellitus taking a sulfonylurea consumes alcohol, it can lead to disulfiram-like symptoms, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. Choice A, hypokalemia, is incorrect because sulfonylureas do not typically lead to low potassium levels. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as sulfonylureas are not associated with high potassium levels. Choice C, hypocalcemia, is also incorrect because sulfonylureas are not known to cause low calcium levels.

3. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

4. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

5. The nurse is planning care for an older adult client who experienced a cerebrovascular accident several weeks ago. The client has expressive aphasia and often becomes frustrated with the nursing staff. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Teach the client the use of basic sign language
• B. Speak slowly to the client
• C. Encourage the client's use of picture charts
• D. Ask the client simple questions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client's use of picture charts is the most appropriate intervention for a client with expressive aphasia. Picture charts provide visual cues that can aid in communication and reduce frustration for the client. This intervention can help the client express their needs and thoughts effectively. Teaching sign language (Choice A) may be challenging and not as practical in this situation as it may not address the specific communication barriers caused by expressive aphasia. Speaking slowly (Choice B) may not fully address the communication difficulties associated with expressive aphasia. Asking simple questions (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may have difficulty understanding and responding due to the nature of expressive aphasia.

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