HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?
- A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
- B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
- C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
- D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.
2. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?
- A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
- B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
- C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
- D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.
3. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:
- A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
- B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
- C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
- D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.
4. An adult client is admitted with flank pain and is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit
- B. Encourage turning and deep breathing
- C. Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed
- D. Auscultate for presence of bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is to administer IV antibiotics as prescribed. Acute pyelonephritis is a serious kidney infection that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent systemic complications and worsening of the infection. While monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in the acute phase of infection. Encouraging turning and deep breathing (Choice B) and auscultating for bowel sounds (Choice D) are relevant aspects of care but do not take precedence over initiating antibiotic treatment to address the infection promptly.
5. When a young client being taught to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms states the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes, what is the best initial action by the nurse?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the client's statement.
- B. Explain that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen.
- C. Revise the plan of care based on the client's plans to continue smoking.
- D. Review factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse when a client expresses plans to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms but continue smoking cigarettes is to address denial. By explaining that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen, the nurse educates the client about the impact of smoking on asthma treatment. This approach helps the client understand the importance of smoking cessation in managing asthma symptoms. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial action in this scenario. Revising the plan of care (Choice C) should be considered after addressing the client's denial and educating them. Reviewing factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation (Choice D) is relevant but not the best initial action when denial is identified.
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