Nursing Elites

1. The patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection and taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab values when monitoring for this drug’s side effects?

• A. Complete blood counts
• B. Electrolytes
• C. Liver enzymes
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin, which is a macrolide antibiotic, in combination with acetaminophen, a potentially hepatotoxic drug, the nurse should monitor liver enzymes. High doses of macrolides when taken with hepatotoxic drugs like acetaminophen can lead to hepatotoxicity. Reviewing liver enzymes helps in early detection of liver damage. Complete blood counts (Choice A) are not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen. Electrolytes (Choice B) are not directly impacted by these medications. Urinalysis (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for monitoring the side effects of azithromycin and acetaminophen combination therapy.

2. A client in a physician’s office has just made an appointment for an exercise stress test. The client should be instructed to:

• A. Wear sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt
• B. Eat a small meal just before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes such as sneakers
• D. Avoid consuming caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes, such as sneakers, for the exercise stress test. This choice ensures safety and stability during the procedure. Wearing sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt (Choice A) would not be appropriate as the client needs to wear light, loose, comfortable clothing. Eating a small meal just before the procedure (Choice B) could lead to discomfort during the test. Avoiding caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure (Choice D) is not a specific instruction related to the attire or preparation for the test.

3. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the dialysis treatment
• B. Administer 5% albumin IV
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
• D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

5. Which of the following is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a patient with diabetes?

• A. Fasting blood glucose levels.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose levels.
• C. Hemoglobin A1c.
• D. Random blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hemoglobin A1c. Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, providing a reliable indicator of long-term glycemic control. Fasting blood glucose levels (choice A) only offer a snapshot of the current glucose level and can fluctuate throughout the day. Postprandial blood glucose levels (choice B) reflect glucose levels after meals but do not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Random blood glucose levels (choice D) are taken at any time and lack the consistency needed to assess long-term glycemic control effectively. Therefore, Hemoglobin A1c is the superior choice for monitoring and managing diabetes over an extended period.

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