Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.

2. A client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis has blood drawn for several serum laboratory tests. Which of the following serum amylase values, noted by the nurse reviewing the results, would be expected in this client at this time?

• A. 48 units/L
• B. 97 units/L
• C. 150 units/L
• D. 395 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "395 units/L." The normal serum amylase range is 25 to 151 units/L. In acute pancreatitis, the amylase level is greatly increased, typically exceeding the upper limit of the normal range. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range of serum amylase levels and would not be expected in a client with acute pancreatitis.

3. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
• B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
• C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
• D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.

4. The home health nurse provides teaching about insulin self-injection to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. When the client begins to perform a return demonstration of an insulin injection into the abdomen, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Select a different injection site
• B. Continue with the insulin injection
• C. Keep the skin flat rather than bunched
• D. Lie down flat for better skin exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing to continue with the insulin injection is the correct instruction in this scenario because it allows the client to demonstrate proper technique and reinforces their learning. Selecting a different injection site (choice A) is not necessary if the client is injecting into the abdomen as it is a suitable site. Keeping the skin flat rather than bunched (choice C) is a good practice but is not the priority in this situation where the client is demonstrating the injection technique. Lying down flat for better skin exposure (choice D) is not required and may not be practical for the client during routine self-injections.

5. A client with acute kidney injury has a blood pressure of 76/55 mm Hg. The health care provider ordered 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over 1 hour to maintain perfusion. The client is starting to develop shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP).
• B. Ask for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.
• C. Take the client’s pulse.
• D. Slow down the normal saline infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client may be developing fluid overload and respiratory distress due to the rapid normal saline infusion. The priority action is to slow down the infusion to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential fluid overload. While calculating the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important to assess perfusion, addressing the immediate respiratory distress takes precedence. Inserting a pulmonary artery catheter would provide detailed hemodynamic information but is not the initial step in managing acute respiratory distress. Monitoring vital signs, including the client's pulse, is crucial after adjusting the intravenous infusion to ensure a safe response to the intervention.

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