Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.

2. In a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which of the following symptoms would be expected?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Coughing up blood.
• D. Cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a common symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the risk of a pulmonary embolism. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. If a portion of the clot breaks loose and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath. Chest pain is more commonly associated with conditions like a heart attack or pulmonary embolism itself. Coughing up blood is a symptom more indicative of conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung cancer. Cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to poor oxygenation, can be seen in severe cases of pulmonary embolism but is not a typical symptom of DVT.

3. A client who just returned from the recovery room after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is restless, and her pulse rate is increased. As the nurse continues the assessment, the client begins to vomit a copious amount of bright-red blood. The immediate nursing action is to:

• A. Notify the surgeon
• B. Continue the assessment
• C. Check the client’s blood pressure
• D. Obtain a flashlight, gauze, and a curved hemostat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's presentation with bright-red blood vomiting after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is highly concerning for an immediate postoperative hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the surgeon immediately. Prompt communication with the surgeon is vital to ensure swift intervention and appropriate management to address the hemorrhage effectively. Continuing the assessment, checking the client's blood pressure, or obtaining equipment are all secondary actions in this critical situation and would delay the necessary urgent intervention required to manage the hemorrhage effectively.

4. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

• A. Shutting off the heparin infusion
• B. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• C. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• D. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

5. The home health nurse provides teaching about insulin self-injection to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. When the client begins to perform a return demonstration of an insulin injection into the abdomen, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Select a different injection site
• B. Continue with the insulin injection
• C. Keep the skin flat rather than bunched
• D. Lie down flat for better skin exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing to continue with the insulin injection is the correct instruction in this scenario because it allows the client to demonstrate proper technique and reinforces their learning. Selecting a different injection site (choice A) is not necessary if the client is injecting into the abdomen as it is a suitable site. Keeping the skin flat rather than bunched (choice C) is a good practice but is not the priority in this situation where the client is demonstrating the injection technique. Lying down flat for better skin exposure (choice D) is not required and may not be practical for the client during routine self-injections.

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