Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 days after a culture was obtained. The nurse notes increased erythema and swelling, and the patient has a persistent high fever of 39°C. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the antibiotic as ordered.
• B. Contact the provider to request another culture.
• C. Discuss the need to add a second antibiotic with the provider.
• D. Review the sensitivity results from the patient’s culture.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing signs of a possible lack of response to the current antibiotic therapy, such as increased erythema, swelling, and persistent high fever. The next appropriate action for the nurse is to review the sensitivity results from the patient’s culture. This step is crucial to determine if the current antibiotic is effective against the causative organism. If the sensitivity results indicate resistance to the current antibiotic, the antibiotic should be discontinued, and the provider should be notified for a change in therapy. Contacting the provider to request another culture is not the immediate priority, as the existing culture results need to be reviewed first. Adding a second antibiotic should only be considered after confirming the sensitivity results, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antimicrobial resistance.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

• A. Atrophy.
• B. Contraction.
• C. Gangrene.
• D. Rubor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

3. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output for the past 24 hours.
• B. Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor.
• C. Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity.
• D. Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

4. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

5. In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

• A. serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL.
• B. blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg.
• C. serum potassium level is 3 mEq/L.
• D. apical pulse is 68/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in individuals on digoxin, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the potential for digitalis toxicity. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range, blood pressure of 104/68 mmHg is not a contraindication for administering digoxin, and an apical pulse of 68/min is within the normal range and not a reason to withhold digoxin.

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