which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Exam

1. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a crucial intervention in suspected sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is essential for guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but should be guided by blood culture results. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also essential to support hemodynamic stability in sepsis. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever but is not a priority compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

2. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

3. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. The client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-sodium diet should avoid which of the following foods?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Canned soups are high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention and hypertension in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, lean meats, and whole grain bread are generally lower in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Lean meats provide essential protein, fresh fruits offer vitamins and minerals, and whole grain bread provides fiber, making them suitable choices for individuals with chronic renal failure.

5. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.

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