a cd4 lymphocyte count is performed on a client who is infected with hiv the results of the test indicate a cd4 count of 450 cellsl the nurse interpre
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 7-year-old patient who will receive oral antibiotics. Which antibiotic order will the healthcare provider question for this patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tetracycline (Sumycin). Tetracyclines should not be given to children younger than 8 years of age because they irreversibly discolor the permanent teeth. Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Clindamycin are antibiotics that are generally safe for use in children and do not have the same tooth discoloration side effect as Tetracycline. Therefore, these antibiotics would be more appropriate choices for a 7-year-old patient.

3. When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, which laboratory values will this patient's nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, such as cefazolin, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory values that indicate renal and hepatic function. This includes checking the Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels to assess kidney function. Additionally, monitoring liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, ALP, LDH, and bilirubin, is essential as cephalosporins can affect liver enzymes. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the parameters that are most pertinent when administering high doses of cephalosporins.

4. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.

5. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.

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