Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse provides teaching about insulin self-injection to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. When the client begins to perform a return demonstration of an insulin injection into the abdomen, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Select a different injection site
• B. Continue with the insulin injection
• C. Keep the skin flat rather than bunched
• D. Lie down flat for better skin exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing to continue with the insulin injection is the correct instruction in this scenario because it allows the client to demonstrate proper technique and reinforces their learning. Selecting a different injection site (choice A) is not necessary if the client is injecting into the abdomen as it is a suitable site. Keeping the skin flat rather than bunched (choice C) is a good practice but is not the priority in this situation where the client is demonstrating the injection technique. Lying down flat for better skin exposure (choice D) is not required and may not be practical for the client during routine self-injections.

2. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

• A. Seafood
• B. Penicillin
• C. Bee stings
• D. Red food dye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

3. Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Elevated hemoglobin levels.
• B. Low platelet count.
• C. High potassium levels.
• D. Low sodium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.

4. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to

• A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
• B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
• C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
• D. take these medications in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.

5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

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