Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
• B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
• C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
• D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

2. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
• B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
• C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
• D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.

3. A client diagnosed with a history of asthma and bronchitis arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, productive cough with thickened, tenacious mucus, and the inability to walk up a flight of stairs without experiencing breathlessness. Which action is most important for the nurses to instruct the client about self-care?

• A. Call the clinic if undesirable side effects of medications occur
• B. Avoid crowded enclosed areas to reduce pathogen exposure
• C. Increase the daily intake of oral fluids to liquefy secretions
• D. Teach anxiety reduction methods for feelings of suffocation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the daily intake of oral fluids is crucial for clients with asthma and bronchitis as it helps to liquefy thickened mucus, making it easier to clear the airways and manage symptoms. This self-care measure can improve the client's ability to breathe more effectively. Choice A is not the most immediate concern when addressing thickened mucus and breathing difficulties. While avoiding crowded areas is beneficial to prevent respiratory infections, it is not directly related to managing thickened secretions. Teaching anxiety reduction methods is important for overall well-being, but it does not directly address the physiological issue of thickened mucus in the airways.

4. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

• A. Keeping the specimen chilled
• B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time
• C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time
• D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

5. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

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