HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient who is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 85 mg 4 times daily. The patient reports experiencing ringing in the ears. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss
- A. decreasing the dose to 50 mg QID.
- B. giving the dose 3 times daily.
- C. obtaining a serum drug level.
- D. ordering a hearing test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) reports experiencing ringing in the ears, it is crucial to consider the possibility of ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is a known adverse effect of aminoglycosides. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss obtaining a serum drug level. This is important to assess the drug concentration in the patient's blood, which can help determine if the ringing in the ears is related to the medication. Decreasing the dose or changing the dosing frequency without assessing the serum drug level may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to suboptimal treatment. Ordering a hearing test may be necessary at a later stage if the serum drug level indicates a concern. Therefore, option C, obtaining a serum drug level, is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario.
2. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?
- A. Decreased chest pain.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Decreased heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.
3. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:
- A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
- B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
- C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
- D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.
4. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client's respiratory acidosis?
- A. Carbon dioxide is converted in the kidneys for elimination.
- B. Blood oxygen levels are stimulating the respiratory rate.
- C. Hyperventilation is eliminating carbon dioxide rapidly.
- D. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood are indicative of respiratory acidosis, often due to inadequate ventilation. In respiratory acidosis, there is retention of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) leading to an increase in carbonic acid levels in the blood, resulting in an acidic pH. Option A is incorrect because carbon dioxide elimination primarily occurs through the lungs, not the kidneys. Option B is incorrect because blood oxygen levels primarily affect the respiratory rate to regulate oxygen levels, not carbon dioxide levels. Option C is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to a decrease, not an increase, in carbon dioxide levels.
5. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?
- A. Gout
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Renal calculi
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.
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