HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient who is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 85 mg 4 times daily. The patient reports experiencing ringing in the ears. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss
- A. decreasing the dose to 50 mg QID.
- B. giving the dose 3 times daily.
- C. obtaining a serum drug level.
- D. ordering a hearing test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) reports experiencing ringing in the ears, it is crucial to consider the possibility of ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is a known adverse effect of aminoglycosides. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss obtaining a serum drug level. This is important to assess the drug concentration in the patient's blood, which can help determine if the ringing in the ears is related to the medication. Decreasing the dose or changing the dosing frequency without assessing the serum drug level may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to suboptimal treatment. Ordering a hearing test may be necessary at a later stage if the serum drug level indicates a concern. Therefore, option C, obtaining a serum drug level, is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario.
2. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.
- A. Unequal chest expansion
- B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
- C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
- D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.
3. In a patient with pneumonia, what is the primary goal of treatment?
- A. Reducing inflammation.
- B. Eliminating the infection.
- C. Reducing pain.
- D. Preventing complications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of treating pneumonia is to eliminate the infection. Antibiotics are commonly used to target the specific pathogen causing pneumonia. While reducing inflammation and preventing complications are important aspects of treatment, the key focus initially is on eradicating the infectious agent to improve the patient's condition and prevent further spread of the infection.
4. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?
- A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
- B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
- C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
- D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.
5. Which of the following is a common complication of immobility?
- A. Muscle hypertrophy.
- B. Pressure ulcers.
- C. Bone fractures.
- D. Joint stiffness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Pressure ulcers. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on the skin, especially over bony prominences. Muscle hypertrophy (Choice A) is not a common complication of immobility; instead, muscle atrophy is more likely to occur due to disuse. Bone fractures (Choice C) can result from trauma but are not directly associated with immobility unless there is a fall or accident. Joint stiffness (Choice D) can develop due to lack of movement but is not as common or severe as pressure ulcers in cases of prolonged immobility.
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