Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Administering IV fluids
• C. Administering antipyretics
• D. Monitoring blood cultures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is crucial in guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating sepsis but is considered a secondary intervention. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also crucial for sepsis management to restore perfusion and hemodynamic stability. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever, but it is not a primary intervention for managing sepsis.

2. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?

• A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
• B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
• C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
• D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.

3. To evaluate the positive effect of furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day in a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), what is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain daily weights of the client.
• B. Auscultate heart and breath sounds.
• C. Palpate the client’s abdomen.
• D. Assess the client’s diet history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to manage fluid overload and hypertension in clients with CKD. Monitoring daily weights is crucial as weight changes reflect fluid status. Each kilogram of weight change approximately corresponds to 1 liter of fluid retention or loss, making it essential for evaluating the medication's effectiveness. Auscultating heart and breath sounds is more relevant for heart failure cases with fluid retention, not specifically for assessing the effect of furosemide in CKD. Palpating the abdomen is not a direct indicator of furosemide's effectiveness; instead, assessing for edema would be appropriate. While assessing the client's diet history is important to monitor electrolyte balance due to potassium loss with furosemide, it does not directly evaluate the medication's efficacy.

4. What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Escherichia coli infection
• B. Staphylococcus aureus infection
• C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
• D. Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is responsible for the majority of UTIs, especially in women. E. coli is a normal inhabitant of the bowel and can enter the urinary tract through the urethra, leading to infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are less common causes of UTIs compared to E. coli. Staphylococcus aureus typically causes skin and soft tissue infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is known for causing pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

5. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. IV fluid infusion.
• B. Pedal pulses.
• C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
• D. Capillary refill time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.

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