Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. The nurse's assessment of the client will most likely reveal which sign/symptom?

• A. Leukocytosis and febrile.
• B. Polycythemia and crackles.
• C. Pharyngitis and sputum production.
• D. Confusion and tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The onset of pneumonia in the elderly may be signaled by general deterioration, confusion, increased heart rate or increased respiratory rate due to the decreased oxygen- carbon dioxide exchange at the alveoli, known as the V-Q mismatch.

2. A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?

• A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
• B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
• C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
• D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.

3. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is being taught by a nurse about the importance of daily weights. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Weigh yourself at the same time every day.
• B. Use the same scale for weighing each time.
• C. Record your weight in a journal or log.
• D. Report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with chronic heart failure is to report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day. This weight gain may indicate fluid retention, which is a critical sign of worsening heart failure. Weighing at the same time every day and using the same scale for consistency are good practices, but the crucial action is to promptly report significant weight gain, as stated in option D. Recording the weight in a journal or log can be helpful for tracking trends, but immediate reporting of weight gain is essential for timely intervention in heart failure management. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate instruction for this client.

5. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

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