an elderly client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia the nurses assessment of the client will most likely reveal which signsymptom
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. An elderly client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. The nurse's assessment of the client will most likely reveal which sign/symptom?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The onset of pneumonia in the elderly may be signaled by general deterioration, confusion, increased heart rate or increased respiratory rate due to the decreased oxygen- carbon dioxide exchange at the alveoli, known as the V-Q mismatch.

2. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.

3. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

4. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.

5. The client has been receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications that is most likely to occur?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Peritonitis is the most likely complication to occur in clients receiving peritoneal dialysis due to the risk of infection. Peritonitis is a serious inflammation of the peritoneum lining the abdominal cavity, commonly caused by infection. While electrolyte imbalance and hyperglycemia are possible complications in some cases, peritonitis poses a more immediate and severe threat to the client's health. Infection is a general term that can encompass peritonitis but is not as specific as directly identifying peritonitis as the primary concern in this scenario.

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