HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Administering a sedative
- B. Encouraging fluid intake
- C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
- D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.
2. Which is a characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections?
- A. Sulfonamides are bactericidal.
- B. Sulfonamides are synthetic compounds.
- C. Sulfonamides have antifungal and antiviral properties.
- D. Sulfonamides increase bacterial synthesis of folic acid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections is that sulfonamides are synthetic compounds, not derived from biologic substances. Choice A is incorrect because sulfonamides are bacteriostatic, not bactericidal. Choice C is incorrect because sulfonamides do not have antifungal and antiviral properties. Choice D is incorrect because sulfonamides act by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid, not increasing it.
3. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
- A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
- B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
- C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
- D. take these medications in the morning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
4. The client with diabetes mellitus should be cautioned by the nurse taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following?
- A. Hypokalemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms. When a client with diabetes mellitus taking a sulfonylurea consumes alcohol, it can lead to disulfiram-like symptoms, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. Choice A, hypokalemia, is incorrect because sulfonylureas do not typically lead to low potassium levels. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as sulfonylureas are not associated with high potassium levels. Choice C, hypocalcemia, is also incorrect because sulfonylureas are not known to cause low calcium levels.
5. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
- B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
- C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
- D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.
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