Nursing Elites

1. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Administering a sedative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
• D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.

2. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. IV fluid infusion.
• B. Pedal pulses.
• C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
• D. Capillary refill time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.

3. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:

• A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
• B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
• C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
• D. Determining how long the client can walk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.

4. The client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure may have a low tolerance for exercise due to:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Increased blood viscosity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased blood flow. In clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure, decreased blood flow due to heart failure can result in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This reduced oxygen supply can lead to low exercise tolerance. Increased blood flow (Choice B) is not typically associated with reduced exercise tolerance in these clients. Decreased pain (Choice C) and increased blood viscosity (Choice D) are not the primary factors contributing to low exercise tolerance in this scenario.

5. A serum phenytoin determination is prescribed for a client with a seizure disorder who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Which result indicates that the prescribed dose of phenytoin is therapeutic?

• A. 3 mcg/mL
• B. 8 mcg/mL
• C. 16 mcg/mL
• D. 28 mcg/mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 16 mcg/mL (Choice C). The therapeutic serum phenytoin range is typically 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level below this range may lead to continued seizure activity, indicating subtherapeutic levels. Choices A, B, and D are below the therapeutic range and would not be considered therapeutic for a client with a seizure disorder on phenytoin therapy.

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