a nurse is preparing a client for intravenous pyelography ivp which action by the nurse is most important
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam

1. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.

2. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a crucial intervention in suspected sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is essential for guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but should be guided by blood culture results. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also essential to support hemodynamic stability in sepsis. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever but is not a priority compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

3. Which of the following is a common cause of acute kidney injury?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infection is a common cause of acute kidney injury because when the body fights an infection, it activates the immune response, leading to inflammation. This inflammatory response can affect the kidneys and impair their function. While hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for chronic kidney disease, it is not a direct cause of acute kidney injury. Dehydration (choice B) can lead to prerenal acute kidney injury due to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, but infection is a more common cause of acute kidney injury. Hypotension (choice D) can contribute to prerenal acute kidney injury, but it is not a direct cause like infection.

4. A client's urinalysis results show a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the client has a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L, indicating dehydration, is to encourage the client to drink more fluids. Dehydration can lead to elevated urine osmolality, and increasing fluid intake can help rehydrate the client. A low-sodium diet is not the priority in this scenario as it would not directly address the dehydration indicated by the high urine osmolality. Administering an intravenous diuretic would further concentrate the urine, exacerbating the dehydration. Obtaining a suction device and implementing seizure precautions are not indicated based on the client's urine osmolality results and would not address the underlying issue of dehydration.

5. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.

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