Nursing Elites

1. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

2. Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed for hypertension?

• A. Atenolol
• B. Aspirin
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atenolol. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly prescribed to manage hypertension due to its ability to reduce the heart rate and lower blood pressure. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin, ibuprofen, and metformin are not typically used as first-line treatments for hypertension. Aspirin is more commonly used for its antiplatelet effects, ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, and metformin is primarily used for managing diabetes.

3. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
• B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
• C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
• D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.

4. A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment.
• B. I’ll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia.
• C. The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted.
• D. The need to watch for bleeding with anticoagulants.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statements indicating a proper understanding of the teaching include the need for antibiotics for dental work, the potential need to adjust pain medication doses, and the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels. The statement about watching for bleeding with anticoagulants is not directly related to CKD and discharge instructions for this condition. Therefore, option A is correct, as it addresses relevant concerns for a client with CKD, while the other options are either unrelated or not specifically mentioned in the scenario.

5. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:

• A. Calls the physician
• B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
• D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.

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