HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is a primary goal of treatment?
- A. Improving oxygenation.
- B. Reducing inflammation.
- C. Improving airflow.
- D. Reducing airway constriction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of asthma is to improve airflow. Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, constriction, and increased mucus production, leading to airflow limitation. Improving airflow helps ensure adequate oxygenation and reduces symptoms. While reducing inflammation and airway constriction are important aspects of asthma management, the primary goal is to optimize airflow to improve respiratory function and quality of life.
2. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has cool and pale feet with diminished pulses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Keep the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Encourage the client to exercise daily.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the affected area.
- D. Apply ice packs to the affected area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), there is decreased blood flow to the extremities. Applying warm compresses helps dilate blood vessels, improve circulation, and relieve symptoms. Elevating the legs above the heart level may further compromise blood flow. Encouraging daily exercise is important in PAD management but may not be appropriate when the client has cool, pale feet with diminished pulses. Applying ice packs can worsen vasoconstriction and further reduce blood flow, exacerbating symptoms in PAD.
3. A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client’s Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
- B. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
- C. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with a povidone-iodine solution.
- D. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take after applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port is to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic like povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This step is crucial to prevent surface contamination before taking the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section or withdrawing and discarding urine are unnecessary and could lead to potential contamination. Inserting a syringe into the injection port and aspirating the required amount of urine directly from the catheter is the correct method for obtaining the urine sample, but cleaning the injection port cap should precede this step to ensure sterility.
4. An older client with long-term type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is seen in the clinic for a routine health assessment. Which assessment would the nurse complete to determine if a patient with type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is experiencing long-term complications?
- A. Signs of respiratory tract infection
- B. Sensation in feet and legs
- C. Skin condition of lower extremities
- D. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing sensation in the feet and legs is crucial for detecting diabetic neuropathy, a common long-term complication of diabetes. While signs of respiratory tract infection, skin condition of lower extremities, and serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels are important assessments in diabetic care, they are not specific for detecting long-term complications like neuropathy.
5. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?
- A. Left ventricular atrophy.
- B. Irregular heartbeats.
- C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
- D. Pacemaker function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.
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